Playing 1/2 NL 9 handed. Stacks all around $700 (plays like a 2/5). It's my first time at this game, but I've played with many of the players before, including the host.
Anyway, the ruling in question.
Preflop, one player is all in, three callers.
Flop comes, and one player checks (dealer, albeit slightly intoxicated) burns and turns an ACE, however, there are TWO players who didn't get to act.
Several people chime in (correctly IMHO) that you need to burn, lay out a river card (face down), then reshuffle the ACE into the deck, then await all action to close.
Host rules that no river will be dealt face down, that the ACE will simply get shuffled back into the deck and that the turn card will be dealt without a burn (since it already occurred), and that then the river will be dealt from the remaining cards in the deck.
Host's logic, that once the ACE was exposed prematurely, it would affect action, since people will know that it CAN NOT show up on the river.
Thoughts?
Anyway, the ruling in question.
Preflop, one player is all in, three callers.
Flop comes, and one player checks (dealer, albeit slightly intoxicated) burns and turns an ACE, however, there are TWO players who didn't get to act.
Several people chime in (correctly IMHO) that you need to burn, lay out a river card (face down), then reshuffle the ACE into the deck, then await all action to close.
Host rules that no river will be dealt face down, that the ACE will simply get shuffled back into the deck and that the turn card will be dealt without a burn (since it already occurred), and that then the river will be dealt from the remaining cards in the deck.
Host's logic, that once the ACE was exposed prematurely, it would affect action, since people will know that it CAN NOT show up on the river.
Thoughts?