Trouble with out of turn action (1 Viewer)

If everyone folds and the two raisers reach a deal, let it go. If there is no deal then run the board for everything.

Allowing them to run it more than once is no different than allowing them to reach a deal... The interim callers weren't given the option to run it more than once, so why give the raisers the option to run it more than once, but not to agree to a money chop?
 
Fwiw, I would have no problem with it being ran twice (or more) if the money stays in the middle and they flop it out. Presumably if anybody else would have been in the pot they would have been involved in any negotiations about running it multiple times so to me that's a moo point.
 
So they would have also had a choice in brokering a deal for less...

Many years ago at my house, two players were AIPF, overpair v underpair. The overpaid paused the dealer and quickly brokered a deal to get his equity out of the pot on the condition that no cards be flopped. The underpair agreed, they chopped up the pot accordingly, and play moved on.

No one else that had the option of calling the AIPF had the deal offered to them. Each was given the option to play the AI and if any called that, they would get a chance to broker a deal (if the overpair was still offering one).

I can't see why this situation would be any different.
 
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Fwiw, I would have no problem with it being ran twice (or more) if the money stays in the middle and they flop it out. Presumably if anybody else would have been in the pot they would have been involved in any negotiations about running it multiple times so to me that's a moo point.
Just like a cow's opinion.
 
Sooo
Player A raised (unknown amount)
Player B re-raised to the unknown amount)
Player A shoved...

Player A was not planning on shoving before player B re-raised... I would be inclined to stop action and ask player A how much the raise was going to be, then player B is held to re-raise at least MIN raise... Then the action should move to other players to do their action and then PLAYER A can shove at that point....

We ALL know if player A was intending on shoving he would have announced that and NOT raise.... His ALL IN was out of turn, IMO

Player A is bound by his Raise statement, also IMO. But again should not be aloud to shove, this seems like a frustrated mood and totally NOT the original raise...
 
Sooo
Player A raised (unknown amount)
Player B re-raised to the unknown amount)
Player A shoved...

Player A was not planning on shoving before player B re-raised... I would be inclined to stop action and ask player A how much the raise was going to be, then player B is held to re-raise at least MIN raise... Then the action should move to other players to do their action and then PLAYER A can shove at that point....

We ALL know if player A was intending on shoving he would have announced that and NOT raise.... His ALL IN was out of turn, IMO

Player A is bound by his Raise statement, also IMO. But again should not be aloud to shove, this seems like a frustrated mood and totally NOT the original raise...
So how do you decide how much the original raiser can raise then? Can he make it $300, $200, $36, $4? Where do you draw the line and why?
 
Sooo
Player A raised (unknown amount)
Player B re-raised to the unknown amount)
Player A shoved...

Player A was not planning on shoving before player B re-raised... I would be inclined to stop action and ask player A how much the raise was going to be, then player B is held to re-raise at least MIN raise... Then the action should move to other players to do their action and then PLAYER A can shove at that point....

We ALL know if player A was intending on shoving he would have announced that and NOT raise.... His ALL IN was out of turn, IMO

Player A is bound by his Raise statement, also IMO. But again should not be aloud to shove, this seems like a frustrated mood and totally NOT the original raise...
Not at all. He can announce raise and tank all he wants. If he opts to go all in after the other guy tried to angle him, good for him. He played it perfectly. Last I checked an all-in shove is still a raise...
Seems to me that Mr. Re-raise should have waited to commit his Chips to pot until after he knew what the bet was....which could be the minimum to a shove. IMO, Chips permitting the reraiser is obligated to put the raisers amount in + a legit reraise and wait for the ensuing action
 
So they would have also had a choice in brokering a deal for less...

No they wouldn't. One of the proposed options was that if the other two people in the hand folded their hands after the all in bet was called by the out of turn reraiser then the the all in and call hands could discuss a deal, possibly to see the flop for less money. With the other two hands in the muck how are those hands able to negotiate a lower bet to be called and see the flop? Conversely, if one of them (as an example) calls the $600 all in they are then able to be part of the how many times to run it discussion.



Just like a cow's opinion.

I was hoping someone would be a smart ass and try to correct me while not realizing I was just flashing back to watching Friends in highschool. :D It actually happened the other day when some newbie didn't understand thread carp. ;):ROFL: :ROFLMAO::ROFL: :ROFLMAO:
 
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Playing 1-2 live, nine handed. The game is somewhat deep, everyone is having a good time. Then this happens.

There are a couple of limps bringing us to a middle position player who says, "I'll raise" but hasn't specified an amount yet.

The next player says "re-raise". The original raiser then asks if out of turn action is binding, which it is. So we tell him as much.

The original raiser goes all-in. Both players have in excess of $600, so the bet is enormous for a preflop raise. The re-raiser thinks he should be able to fold, since he no longer can re-raise.

How should this be ruled?

PS The dealer has gathered in all the mucked cards and is guarding the muck pile just in case. . . .


He must re-raise or go all in if he does not have enough.

Roberts rules under irregularities:
......An action or verbal declaration out of turn is binding unless the action to that player is subsequently changed by a bet or raise......

You could argue that the initial raise would "change" the action, but I think that's a stretch
 
Still, I always feel a little put-off when I tell someone they need to post blinds to get back in after walking away and missing the blinds, and sometimes I'll try to post for them.

Quick aside - We avoid this in the 1/2 game. Everyone pays their blinds whether they're at the table or not. If it's limped pot (rare), the BB's hand stays live. We call it the smoker's tax. No one has ever complained, even newbs to the game.
 
I have seen it done with Mike the Mouth and Phil Hellmuth on Poker after Dark and thought the same thing. There was a preflop raise and the two of them raise then re-raise. Original raiser folds and Phil and Mike are all in. But they negotiate to take the money back since it was so close.

I thought it was bull shit since the original raiser lost money. If it was me at the table in that spot I would be making a stink for sure.


Maybe the other player did, and they edited it out. They could have just agreed that they'd return his bet, but that's not compelling TV.
 
Allowing the headsup players to run it more than once is an attempt to normalize variance, or to give a player some of his money back (say the hands are turned over and the re-raiser is a 2:1 dog and they agree to run it three times -- if statistics hold (sure, they don't always), the re-raiser will win one and lose two, thereby getting one-third his money back.)

If you are going to let them run it more than once because its heads up, why wouldn't you let them agree to negotiate a deal which might include pulling money out, or even chopping the pot a certain way without even seeing a flop?

One of the proposed options was that if the other two people in the hand folded their hands after the all in bet was called by the out of turn reraiser then the the all in and call hands could discuss a deal, possibly to see the flop for less money. With the other two hands in the muck how are those hands able to negotiate a lower bet to be called and see the flop? Conversely, if one of them (as an example) calls the $600 all in they are then able to be part of the how many times to run it discussion.

Where are you getting this from? Unless you were there (and I'm not being a wise ass, I don't know everyone on this board yet), OP never said that those to act after re-raiser could only call/raise and then only if it got heads up, the two raisers could broker a deal. OP's last comment on this is in post #79:

*** Ok, so now what ***

As expected, I ruled the all-in bet must be called by the re-raiser. The re-raiser isn't happy - he yammers about how good his hand is and how he would like to see a flop. This likely means he has a hand like J2o or 74s (two of his favorite hands).

The original raiser is willing to negotiate. However, most of the table still has cards. So what should I do to a) facilitate a negotiation between the two parties and b) protect the interests of the rest of the table?

DrStrange

PS both parties are regulars.

Do you just mean this is how you would have handled it? That's fine, but I don't think the OP has limited it as such. In my mind, any amount of players still in a hand can negotiate whatever deal they want. If someone behind re-raiser would have called, they could have been included in the discussion for pulling back money or chopping according to agreed percentages (or running it more than once).
 
Where are you getting this from?


From this thread. Specifically: (bold is my own)

The ruling has been made that both bets stand. Action is now on the next player.

If everyone folds back to the original raiser they then can make a deal of some sort.

Each take some money back or run it 4 times etc. but until it is heads up they need to keep their mouths shut and let the rest of the table play their hands.

At this point, I would say the action stays as is until the remainder of the table has acted. If the remaining players all fold, and it is heads up, they can negotiate. If another player calls after the reraise, I would say everything is now binding.

Mark

Like everyone else said, "b". If everyone else folds then they can deal, but reraisers yammering is also influencing action (as is raisers offer to negotiate) and I'd caution them both to stop talking until the other players have all made their decisions.

These two really are quite a pair, aren't they?
Like everybody else said, let the table have it's turn and if there's another caller, there are no negotiations.
If everybody folds, tell these two that they're a pair of pantywaists, and if they each want to pull an agreed-upon amount out of the pot before the flop, they can. Because this is a friendly home game.


My thoughts on this particular course of action is that if the deal that is reached between the two (original raiser and out of turn reraiser) involves seeing the flop (and therefore the rest of the hand, however far that goes) for less money than the full amount the other two players were faced with calling that would be unfair to the players that have already folded. If they both fold and then the deal is made that the two originals are going to pull back $400 does that mean either of the two players who have already folded can then decide to call $200 and retrieve their cards from the muck? That doesn't seem very likely, so to me that makes them face a decision for $600 that in the end was only $200.

Yes, I understand running it multiple times, what it means, and why it would be done or not done, but that is not relative to the above situation. If they run it twice it reduces variance for the two in the pot, but there is still $1200 of their money in there.



Which is why I think your line of thinking might be a little off when you say:

In my mind, any amount of players still in a hand can negotiate whatever deal they want. If someone behind re-raiser would have called, they could have been included in the discussion for pulling back money or chopping according to agreed percentages (or running it more than once).



to me that's the crux. Their decision was for $600, not $200 (or whatever would be agreed upon to see the flop) after the deal is made.





By the way, I don't think you're being a wise ass at all, we are just having a discussion. It's a good reason not to post like trolls and start insulting people you have never met on the internet, it allows people to have a fun argument while passing time talking about something we all love which is the reason we are all here in the first place. That's the real definition of community to me, I have no idea what a few other people prattle on about when they reference "community" while being a troll. :D



Edit: I am assuming that what those posts, and a few others I might have missed, are referencing in regards to the "deal negotiated" to be inclusive of something like pulling out money out of the pot (in effect reducing the size of the original raise/reraise/call fiasco). If however what those posters meant is in regards to negotiating how many times to run it I mistook the meaning and would obviously not disagree with that line of thinking,
 
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Took a peek at Robert's Rules and found two pieces that are interesting to the discussion, here...

Section 14 - NO LIMIT AND POT-LIMIT

6. At non-tournament play, a player who says "raise" is allowed to continue putting chips into the pot with more than one move; the wager is assumed complete when the player’s hands come to rest outside the pot area. (This rule is used because no-limit play may require a large number of chips be put into the pot.) In tournament play, the TDA rules require that the player either use a verbal statement giving the amount of the raise or put the chips into the pot in a single motion, to avoid making a string-bet.

Interesting. I would generally have called that a string bet, unless an amount were first declared. I don't think I like this rule; I think it leads people towards string-betting. I'm OK with it if someone counts out some stacks behind their cards, declares "raise," indicates that the stacks are the raise, and then takes multiple hand actions to transfer the raise in front of the cards... but I don't like just letting them keep going back to their main stacks.

12. Because the amount of a wager at big-bet poker has such a wide range, a player who has taken action based on a gross misunderstanding of the amount wagered may receive some protection by the decision-maker. A "call" or “raise” may be ruled not binding if it is obvious that the player grossly misunderstood the amount wagered, provided no damage has been caused by that action.

This rule explicitly allows for discretion when the situation in the OP is created via accident or misunderstanding. The context here, however, says that's it's not misunderstanding... it's someone intentionally taunting, jumping in prematurely, and then getting charged, in return.

Quotes are from RRoP Version 11 as posted here.
 
1) Initial player who announce 'raise' has the right to raise to any amount ranging from min-raise to all-in. Nothing changes that.

2) Player who announced 're-raise' prior to initial raiser completing his action has acted prematurely (or out of turn, if you prefer). His announced action is binding, regardless of how initial raiser completes his action. Nothing changes that.

3) After initial raiser announces "all-in" (completing his action), the re-raiser is obligated to at least min-raise the current raise (if able to do so) and also has the right to raise up to and including all-in. If he cannot cover the min-raise amount, he is all-in. Nothing changes that.

4) Remaining players will act in turn, facing the current raise amount (whatever that may be, based on #3 above). Players who have previously completed their action should not influence any subsequent action by their speech or gestures.

5) Once all action is complete, the remaining players in the hand may negotiate how many times the hand is run, but may not agree to pull money back out of the pot. This protects the interests of the other players that were in the hand. The remaining players may not agree to a chop, for the same reasons (unless the remaining players includes all of the players that were yet to act). Allowing such actions opens the door for future collusion, and is not in the best interest of the game.


Unless there are house-specific rules in place to rule otherwise (on any given point), I don't see how it could - or should - be done any other way.
 
*** Results ***

I asked for the negotiations to wait till the table had acted. The re-raiser didn't stop - he begged non-stop while the table folded around.

A third player takes some time considering what to do holding :8d: :8s: muttering how much he wanted to take a flop, but obviously not that much. Soon enough everyone folds leaving the two principals.

The original raiser offers the re-raiser a deal = = = give me $200 and we'll call it even. Then the original raiser shows one card, the :ad:. The re-raiser wants to see a flop then decide, but the raiser doesn't budge. Play for stacks or give me $200. In the end the re-raiser paid the $200.

I think every player watching this unfold would prefer the $200 deal vs letting the re-raiser play for stacks and likely losing. We don't get to see anyone's hand, though I would be shocked to find anything other than pocket aces in the original raiser's hand. The re-raiser likely has terrible cards, he has been known to call with some rather dodgy hands for all his chips.
 
Any settlement should have included all players that had live hands post all-in, imo.

Allowing some players to raise others out of the pot and then to collude into playing or settling for lesser amounts is just wrong, and reeks of wrongdoing (and perception is everything). I would cease participating in a game run in that fashion, and be very critical vocally about why.
 
$200 for an education he won't soon forget? He got a good deal. Sadly he may not learn from it unless someone tells him straight out that play was bullshit and won't fly. I would have insisted he pay a penalty, say something like $50 to a high hand pot that he cant win for bringing bs tactics to a good game.

I learned that you

1) have to protect your players.

2) preserve the integrity of the game.
 
My thoughts on this particular course of action is that if the deal that is reached between the two (original raiser and out of turn reraiser) involves seeing the flop (and therefore the rest of the hand, however far that goes) for less money than the full amount the other two players were faced with calling that would be unfair to the players that have already folded. If they both fold and then the deal is made that the two originals are going to pull back $400 does that mean either of the two players who have already folded can then decide to call $200 and retrieve their cards from the muck? That doesn't seem very likely, so to me that makes them face a decision for $600 that in the end was only $200.

I guess my thought was that any subsequent actor could agree to call for $600 and could then partake in playing for less discussions... but they'd have to agree to call the $600.

My reasoning is premised on in being acceptable for the two raisers to play for less. This comment has changed my mind on that.

Allowing some players to raise others out of the pot and then to collude into playing or settling for lesser amounts is just wrong, and reeks of wrongdoing (and perception is everything). I would cease participating in a game run in that fashion, and be very critical vocally about why.

Risking $600 and controlling variance is different than saying you are risking $600, making everyone commit to risking $600 and when they all fold, playing for $20.
 
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In a cash game, generally, no. If its chump change and among friends, it may be less of a deal.

I've player three card props with another player and we've used separate chips so there is no effect on the cash chips in play. But last time we did props, 6 or 7 players were in (everyone buy one person) and we just used our stacks.
 
I think it is noteworthy to acknowledge that had the two players in question been closing the action with no other live hands in play, then for them to arrive at a post-action/pre-flop settlement is acceptable (if allowed by house rules). It is only the fact that their actions affected the subsequent actions of others still in the hand that makes any type of post action settlement improper in this case.

Also, as host, I would privately be coming down hard on the re-raiser, for two reasons. First, for the angle-shooting aspect of his intentional premature action, and second, his repeated failure to keep quiet as to not influence subsequent action. A warning would be issued that such behavior will not be tolerated in the future, and risks expulsion from the group.

The responsibility of protecting the interests of the players and the integrity of the game ultimately falls on the shoulders of the host.
 
I've player three card props with another player and we've used separate chips so there is no effect on the cash chips in play. But last time we did props, 6 or 7 players were in (everyone buy one person) and we just used our stacks.

If a prop bet is made and paid with the checks on the table, and the checks stay on the table, isn't there no effect on the cash chips in play?
 

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