Is there a reference for that?
Saying "raise" is not a legal action(in a NL game). I don't need a reference.
Is there a reference for that?
If raiser did not choose to make the raise an all-in until after confirming that the re-raiser was bound by the re-raise then it's an angle shoot.
He didn't initially raise with the intent to angle-shoot, but after the premature re-raise, he decided to use the situation to angle-shoot.
Player A's announcement of raise is binding and can minraise all the way up to all-in. Player B must then minraise the all-in if possible or is also all-in with players behind yet to act
Saying "raise" is not a legal action(in a NL game). I don't need a reference.
No, because he went all-in after coming to believe that the re-raiser was obligated to call whatever was bet.
In a "friendly" game, this is fairly douchey. Any raise wildly outside of the standard "first raise" for this table gets douchey.
Uh, what?
The action isn't complete, but saying raise is for sure a legal action. If you say raise and put in a call, the floor would maker you minraise.
I've often seen people raise an unknown amount by putting chips forward. The raise is a complete action. The amount is later determined if anyone asks (which someone usually does.)
Yes I know. What I'm saying is saying raise in and of itself is not an action. You can't say raise and then stare at everyone else and expect action to proceed.
But he was in the middle of acting when the Re-raiser acted out of turn. The All-In was still one of his available options.No, because he went all-in after coming to believe that the re-raiser was obligated to call whatever was bet.
Player A's announcement of raise is binding and can minraise all the way up to all-in. Player B must then minraise the all-in if possible or is also all-in with players behind yet to act. Player B should have waited until an amount was stated from Player A.
Does that mean the re-raiser gets to make verbal bets like this knowing that worst case he has to make it $8 to go? Or even not ever having to call the raise much less actually re-raising?
If raiser did not choose to make the raise an all-in until after confirming that the re-raiser was bound by the re-raise then it's an angle shoot.
He didn't initially raise with the intent to angle-shoot, but after the premature re-raise, he decided to use the situation to angle-shoot.
Saying "raise" is not a legal action(in a NL game). I don't need a reference.
If raiser did not choose to make the raise an all-in until after confirming that the re-raiser was bound by the re-raise then it's an angle shoot.
How does this make any sense? So I can declare a raise then take it back?
Putting chips out is specifying an amount so not sure how this applies.
This is a tough one. Clearly the correct ruling in a casino setting is this:
In order to avoid this scenario:
But in a friendly home game? Unless re-raiser has a history of shadiness I'm inclined to let him off the hook, with a stern admonishment that if it ever happens again he's all-in. And an admonishment to original raiser as well for trying to use a minor procedural mistake to take $600 from his buddy - $600 is a bit excessive for a "lesson," for anybody, and could cause some seriously hurt feelings. (Although to be perfectly honest, in the heat of the moment I might or might not do the same - it's a cutthroat game, after all. )
But raiser is definitely taking advantage of the situation to exploit the rules and win the money in a "non-poker" way.
Can you angle-shoot an angle-shooter?
You've never seen someone put forward two $100 chips and say, "raise to one and twenty total?"
Player B must at least min-raise; however, he can still declare a larger raise if he wants to as his action was also not yet declared
In home game setting, I would explain the situation and agree that the original raiser is within the rules to take his action; however, I would then give him the choice of either letting the re-raiser off this hook (i.e., in order to win this one pot) OR leaving after this hand and not being invited back ever again to my games.
Playing 1-2 live, nine handed. The game is somewhat deep, everyone is having a good time. Then this happens.
There are a couple of limps bringing us to a middle position player who says, "I'll raise" but hasn't specified an amount yet.
The next player says "re-raise". The original raiser then asks if out of turn action is binding, which it is. So we tell him as much.
The original raiser goes all-in. Both players have in excess of $600, so the bet is enormous for a preflop raise. The re-raiser thinks he should be able to fold, since he no longer can re-raise.
How should this be ruled?
PS The dealer has gathered in all the mucked cards and is guarding the muck pile just in case. . . .
I agree the second player must raise as his re-raise declaration is binding; however, he can raise anything from min-raise to all in (i.e., just like the original raiser). In this instance, he doesn't have enough chips to do anything different but he still has the right to do so in a different situation.Somewhat splitting hairs but I don't think this is the case. Player B must be a minraise precisely because he acted out of turn yet action is binding.
which is why my games usually go according to casino rule.
Per the rules, the original raiser can move all in if he wishes to do so.But how much do you tell the original raiser he's allowed to raise? I guess you'd just have to guestimate an appropriate amount? 10 big blinds plus the pot?