I don’t know much about gambling laws or anything about California law, but one thing I read is that the damages are theoretical.
Even if you could prove that somebody cheated in a hand, in most cases, you can’t prove that if he hadn’t cheated, how much you would have won (or wouldn’t have lost) in any given hand. And there’s really no way to prove precise damages in an entire session. In other words, you might have lost all your money anyway, even if the game was 100% straight.
That sounds a little bizarre, if someones cheating why not assume it as all ill gotten gains? Seems fair.
If they are cheating. Then it shouldn't matter IMO.