Must a Winning Hand Show ALL Cards? (11 Viewers)

[BGinGA]

Again, your right to see the winning cards is based on having been dealt cards, not because you called (or placed) the final bet. Paying has nothing to do with it.

 

[SwissChip]

There are 3 players all-in. They got to show they‘re hands!
At least we play this way.
If your all-in gets called, show what you have!
Everything else makes 0 sense.

 

[AWenger]

Let’s assume game security is not an issue.

Let's not assume that.

In a friendly, relaxed game, I counter with why does the player care if his whole hand is shown?

I've talked to people that discovered cheating in 10c/25c friendly, relaxed, home games, between people that knew each other well. And it was an unexpected shock to all the other players.

The other players guessed it wasn't about the money, but the 'thrill' of trying to get away with cheating, like kleptomania. "Kleptomania is an impulse control disorder that involves an uncontrollable urge to steal items, often for no personal gain or financial benefit" "People with kleptomania may experience a feeling of tension before stealing, and relief or pleasure during or after the act. They may also try to resist the urge to steal, but are unable to."

 

[UniLover]

There are 3 players all-in. They got to show they‘re hands!
At least we play this way.
If your all-in gets called, show what you have!
Everything else makes 0 sense.

Right.

Player A's winning "hand" of the side pot was shown with one 3 to make a trip with the board's two 3s over Player C's two pairs. The rest of Player A's hole cards weren't shown.

 

[Cratty]

I voted before reading the context of how it played out, my apologies for ruining your perfect poll..!

Same... my vote is null/void and in the wrong. Ha

 

[SwissChip]

Of course his set is over the two pair, but in an all-in/call situation all hands must be shown.
It‘s called show down.

 

[MrCatPants]

PCF doesn't agree on much. 70-2 is the most agreement I've ever seen on here.

 

[CdnBeerLover]

Again, your right to see the winning cards is based on having been dealt cards, not because you called (or placed) the final bet. Paying has nothing to do with it.

I know this is thread is in the context of a cash game, but for tournaments, that may depend on the ruleset governing the game. Current TDA rule 18 (https://www.pokertda.com/view-poker-tda-rules/) states that only players that have cards at showdown can ask to see winning hands. As I read it, if you were dealt cards and folded, you forfeit that right.

18: Asking to See a Hand
A: Players not still in possession of cards at showdown, or who have mucked their cards face down without tabling, lose any rights or privileges to ask to see any hand.

B: If there was a river bet, any caller has an inalienable right to have the last aggressor’s hand tabled on request (“the hand they paid to see”) provided the caller tabled or retains his or her cards. TDs discretion governs all other requests such as to see the hand of another caller, or if there was no river bet. See Illustration Addendum [adopted 2013].

That said, if the winner only shows one card, then they are instructed to table the second card and then it's up to the floor (rule 15a).

 

[UniLover]

That said, if the winner only shows one card, then they are instructed to table the second card and then it's up to the floor (rule 15a).

What does this part mean?

 

[CdnBeerLover]

What does this part mean?

Hosrt/tournament director decides how to handle the situation. By rule 13a, the hand must be properly tabled (eg both hole cards shown in hold'em). If a player refuses to do so when asked, then the person running the game determines how to handle it. That is up to them.

 

[Machine]

What does this part mean?

This rule applies when an aggressor makes a bet on the river, and does NOT get callers. If the winner shows a single card, they must show both cards.